Originally posted by pmasoft
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His entire annual allowance is "used" in the sense that more than the annual allowance has been earned and thus all further income is liable for income tax.
However only half of his annual allowance is "used" in the sense that it has been "allowed" for in the paye calculation. As I showed the OP is currently in a position where they have overpaid - based on time elapsing and no further income. Of course if they are running a payroll this position will resolve itself because the refund will be calculated and distributed (subject to any maximums applied by HMRC to payroll of course).
As to whether or not the OP should decide to pay themselves any further salary this year that depends on a number of factors. Probably not would be my answer. Certainly there is a risk of increasing the overall amount paid over to HMRC as a result of any NI that became due (obviously depends on the level of salary paid).
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