More time posting than coding
He's asking the same questions elsewhere and getting the same kind of answers.
Down with racism. Long live miscegenation!
This person is going to get him/herself in a very great deal of pain if they don't go out there and get some proper professional advice. As I said, I am not an accountant or a tax expert for that matter. But I can think of three reasons off the top of my head why this transaction, whose only purpose is to avoid tax, will fail.
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Officially CUK certified - Thick as f**k.
Fingers like lightning
More time posting than coding
I am aware of the cgt consequences. There is no profit attributable to cgt increase since purchase. It’s the retained profit from years of contracting that is at stake
I am selling shares held in personal name to company b so 0.5% stamp duty is required which I can live with
As to commercial reason for doing this: I want to invest more money in company b and increase the share capital
Edit : My accountant suggested moving a property from personal name to a ltd name in the Uk purely for tax optimisation purposes. That seems to be common on the Uk yet is not subject to gaar or anything else
Yet selling my shares that I own to another ltd (and lending the new ltd) seems to be frowned upon with allegations of evasion etc
Last edited by NowPermOutsideUK; 22nd November 2020 at 23:26.
Fingers like lightning
If you pay the stamp duty, report the transaction to HMRC within 30 days under the property rich company disposal rules (terms and conditions apply) and don't come back to the UK quickly so that you are not caught by the temporary non-resident rules then great. If you are caught by the temporary non-resident rules then your "capital gain" will actually be taxed at dividend rates (38.1%) when you return because of the transaction in securities rules. Business asset disposal relief will just not be relevant.
If it is just as you've described here, GAAR won't be relevant either. Neither would evasion be relevant. Evasion would be relevant if, for example, you are actually resident in the UK and pretend you aren't (or you know you have to report the sale under the property rich company rules and deliberately decide not to).
I'm sure you've already found out about TIS but if anyone else is interested, the example here seems quite similar (except cash v loan): CTM36815 - Company Taxation Manual - HMRC internal manual - GOV.UK
FYI retained profit from contracting is classed as a capital gain if you sell your shares for profit (that's the capital gain bit), or MVL (same thing as selling shares for profit). Forget how the company made profit. You make profit on your capital investment of £1 (or whatever it was).
See You Next Tuesday