In principle it is the case that the IR35 obligations rest with the individual.
However there is least the theoretical possibility that the debt (if any were established) could be transferred to the end client. In order for this to happen the OP would have to not pay them and be shown to be neglectful. Quit a hurdle. In any event this would only get them transferred to the agency. So it would then the the case that they would need to be in default and also neglect could be established (at least that is my reading that the transfer provisions become sequential rather than conferring joint and several liability further up the contractual chain. There is also some doubt as to whether the transfer provisions would even be capable of being applied at all in these circumstances).
If HR legals want to worry about it they might be better served by considering whether their actions (in addition to this) have established an employee/employer relationship under tax laws (almost certainly not) and/or employment law (given the different definitions involved). The latter is more likely (or rather simply very slightly less improbable) due to the broader definition of the term "worker".
As far as I am aware this has only happened in Muscat v Cable and Wireless at an ET. However this had some very specific and unusual circumstances.
However there is least the theoretical possibility that the debt (if any were established) could be transferred to the end client. In order for this to happen the OP would have to not pay them and be shown to be neglectful. Quit a hurdle. In any event this would only get them transferred to the agency. So it would then the the case that they would need to be in default and also neglect could be established (at least that is my reading that the transfer provisions become sequential rather than conferring joint and several liability further up the contractual chain. There is also some doubt as to whether the transfer provisions would even be capable of being applied at all in these circumstances).
If HR legals want to worry about it they might be better served by considering whether their actions (in addition to this) have established an employee/employer relationship under tax laws (almost certainly not) and/or employment law (given the different definitions involved). The latter is more likely (or rather simply very slightly less improbable) due to the broader definition of the term "worker".
As far as I am aware this has only happened in Muscat v Cable and Wireless at an ET. However this had some very specific and unusual circumstances.
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