Apologies for a long post.
On behalf of a friend. It isn't me but for simplicity I'll use the first person.
I was not resident in England, where I owned a property jointly with my now ex (married) which was let. I was however resident not too far away, on an island which is not part of the UK and has its own parliament.
None of the income from the rental has been declared to the UK authorities. There was no intermediary in the rental arrangement. It was simply somebody paying me about 10k per annum for rental.
I have now received an enquiry from HMRC "we know you had some rental income".
Ok, so where next. Firstly it seems obvious that this is a business receiving scedule A (I think) income.
As such the taxable income is basically Gross less mortgage interest less other costs - either 10% depreciating of fixtures and fittings or specific expenditure.
I know the gross income. Everything else is difficult. The mortgage was about 100k. I have no idea of the rates and ex is unhelpful. However, I think it is fair to assume that the cheapest it could possibly have been would be around 4% (5 years ago). SO a "guessed" income charge of around 5k would seem fair.
Without even thinking of other costs this would then reduce the potential profit to around 5k.
The property was jointly owned with my ex. As such I believe that unless specific declaration is made to the contrary it is split 50.50. So that brings it down to 10k less 5k cost = 5k or 2.5k each (I guess 5k each is taxman is not prepared to accept any interest).
So, this reduces to one simple initial question. It is this.
If I am not uk resident and the only income I have that is chargeable to UK tax is from property do I still get a UK personal allowance ??
If the answer to that is yes then I'm OK. Since, broadly speaking, the maximum income that could be chargeable is about the same as the personal allowance was then. I've not been able to ascertain this despite looking, it seems a bit unclear.
Any pointers as to where to look would be great to try and find some reference so that I can respond intelligently to the enquiry.
I am now resident in the UK again and living in the house in question, though I don't believe this would make any difference.
On behalf of a friend. It isn't me but for simplicity I'll use the first person.
I was not resident in England, where I owned a property jointly with my now ex (married) which was let. I was however resident not too far away, on an island which is not part of the UK and has its own parliament.
None of the income from the rental has been declared to the UK authorities. There was no intermediary in the rental arrangement. It was simply somebody paying me about 10k per annum for rental.
I have now received an enquiry from HMRC "we know you had some rental income".
Ok, so where next. Firstly it seems obvious that this is a business receiving scedule A (I think) income.
As such the taxable income is basically Gross less mortgage interest less other costs - either 10% depreciating of fixtures and fittings or specific expenditure.
I know the gross income. Everything else is difficult. The mortgage was about 100k. I have no idea of the rates and ex is unhelpful. However, I think it is fair to assume that the cheapest it could possibly have been would be around 4% (5 years ago). SO a "guessed" income charge of around 5k would seem fair.
Without even thinking of other costs this would then reduce the potential profit to around 5k.
The property was jointly owned with my ex. As such I believe that unless specific declaration is made to the contrary it is split 50.50. So that brings it down to 10k less 5k cost = 5k or 2.5k each (I guess 5k each is taxman is not prepared to accept any interest).
So, this reduces to one simple initial question. It is this.
If I am not uk resident and the only income I have that is chargeable to UK tax is from property do I still get a UK personal allowance ??
If the answer to that is yes then I'm OK. Since, broadly speaking, the maximum income that could be chargeable is about the same as the personal allowance was then. I've not been able to ascertain this despite looking, it seems a bit unclear.
Any pointers as to where to look would be great to try and find some reference so that I can respond intelligently to the enquiry.
I am now resident in the UK again and living in the house in question, though I don't believe this would make any difference.
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