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Client Organizing Regular Travel to Site - Implications?

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    Client Organizing Regular Travel to Site - Implications?

    I currently spend approx. 2 weeks/month on site with my client (typically two return flights and 8 nights in a hotel - I'm up north, they're down south); sometimes a bit more. MyCo pays for this travel.
    Now the client is suggesting they organize this for me (i.e. they just get me the tickets and pick up the hotel bill - no money goes through MyCo). They have an internal travel department which deals with corporate travel so can just put this through with the permies travel arrangements. I believe this is a "sweetner" and easier to put through the budget internally than an equivalent valued rate rise.
    Do I need to wary of anything in this arrangement? Not sure it's an IR35 pointer as they certainly pick up travel costs for people coming in from larger suppliers on a regular basis (but for much shorter terms). Presumably it still becomes a personal BIK if it looks like going beyond 24 months (I'm on site more than the 40% threshold) - but how would I figure out the value if I never see the invoices? Presumably I'd have to get the client to release this information.
    My own preference is to keep things as they are so I control my own travel (both because it's familiar, less permie-like and also as I'd have more control over where I stay). However if the alternative is no rate rise and still paying my own travel then it may be tempting.

    #2
    Hotels are probably OK, you may always argue that they had a corporate rate which allowed the client to make a saving vs booking personally. The flights I would book myself.

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      #3
      If the client does this themselves, then they remove the "double payment" of VAT (ie hotel bills you including VAT, you add VAT onto your invoice and pass that onto the client).

      I wouldn't worry about IR35 implications, since they do this for other suppliers and it helps their processes.
      Originally posted by MaryPoppins
      I hadn't really understood this 'pwned' expression until I read DirtyDog's post.

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        #4
        I asked them what hotels they use and they've got ones I don't much like on their list. They've also managed to negotiate a corporate rate that's 50% higher than what you can book as a normal punter on the likes of Trivago. Don't know how they managed that :-)

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          #5
          corporate rate - lol

          Originally posted by supersteamer View Post
          I asked them what hotels they use and they've got ones I don't much like on their list. They've also managed to negotiate a corporate rate that's 50% higher than what you can book as a normal punter on the likes of Trivago. Don't know how they managed that :-)
          corporate rate are only avalible 'sometimes 1 out of 10 times' I bet you have a big excel showing hundreds of hotels on the 'corporate list' non of them will ever be avalible when you phone/email/online the 'corporate travel' team, you will end up with them putting you in a S-hole 3 nights out of 5 and 5 nights out of 5 at busy times. Miles from anywhere (and 50% more of what you book them for)

          Is it Lloydes or RBS by the way.?

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            #6
            Makes sense from the client's POV if it saves them money.

            Only possible implication I think of is how this would tie up with the 24 month rule. Is it still relevant? Probably but I'm not sure. Is it possible to receive a BIK from somebody that isn't your employer? Clearly if the client is just paying for travel/accommodation expenses there shouldn't be any BIK but if the 24 month rule can still apply, then there could potentially be.

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              #7
              Originally posted by DirtyDog View Post
              If the client does this themselves, then they remove the "double payment" of VAT (ie hotel bills you including VAT, you add VAT onto your invoice and pass that onto the client).

              I wouldn't worry about IR35 implications, since they do this for other suppliers and it helps their processes.
              I'm not sure this is common but doesn't sound like there is anything to worry about particularly.

              My current contract states I pay for all travel to the client site where I am based (which is about a 45 mile drive from home) but the client picks up all costs for travel to any other location.

              In my case, this is occasionally to London but mainly short trips abroad. I've been averaging 3-4 trips abroad a month so it makes sense for the client to pick these costs up to avoid double VAT payment. Also the frequency/location/costs can be high and unpredictable.

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                #8
                Originally posted by edison View Post
                I'm not sure this is common but doesn't sound like there is anything to worry about particularly.
                Some agencies worry about it - there are a couple of recent threads about being expected to bill the original cost net rather than gross and then adding VAT on top.

                If you have a client / agency who insist on this, then that can add up to a large chunk that you can't get reimbursed.

                Individual pays a £240 hotel bill; company invoices client for £240 including VAT; £40 VAT goes to HMRC, £240 goes to the employee, company loses £40.

                Apply that to a long-distance business class flight and it's a big deal over whether you get it paid properly or not.
                Originally posted by MaryPoppins
                I hadn't really understood this 'pwned' expression until I read DirtyDog's post.

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