Just about to start my first contract and wondered how I go about paying for company expenses if my business account has £0. Obviously I would transfer funds from my personal account to the business account - would this be classed as a directors loan and then I would pay it back to my personal account once I have funds? Are there any tax implications by using this method?
Based on being outside IR35 I have been advised of taking the minimum salary of the following:
£8,060 per annum, which would mean you wouldn’t pay any NI or income tax if your tax code was above 859L.
£10,600 per annum, which would mean you would pay NI but not income tax if your tax was 1060L. The benefit is you would make an additional £200 from this salary each year, but have the added burden of making quarterly payments to HMRC.
I do not yet have my P45 as my umbrella company have informed me it will take a month to come. My question is if the basic personal allowance is £10,600 and Im sure my tax code is 1060L then why have I been advised to take the salary of £8060 per annum?
Thanks in advance!
Based on being outside IR35 I have been advised of taking the minimum salary of the following:
£8,060 per annum, which would mean you wouldn’t pay any NI or income tax if your tax code was above 859L.
£10,600 per annum, which would mean you would pay NI but not income tax if your tax was 1060L. The benefit is you would make an additional £200 from this salary each year, but have the added burden of making quarterly payments to HMRC.
I do not yet have my P45 as my umbrella company have informed me it will take a month to come. My question is if the basic personal allowance is £10,600 and Im sure my tax code is 1060L then why have I been advised to take the salary of £8060 per annum?
Thanks in advance!
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