My husband and I own 5 fully mortgaged properties as tenants in common. He is a 40% tax rate payer. I let and manage the properties but have no other income. We make a small profit at the moment. With the new legislation coming in, in 2017 concerning no longer being able to offset the full interest only payments against the rental income we will be pushed into a significant loss making situation (and that's without any interest rate rise). We intend selling the lowest yielding property, however, is there any way I can be assigned a higher proportion of the income from the properties?
I read a thread from 2009 about gifting a larger proportion of the properties from husband to wife. Can this be done after purchase? There was also mention of CGT implications, but there was a suggestion that income could be split disproportionately but CGT could be kept at equal shares.
Can anyone help with this?
I read a thread from 2009 about gifting a larger proportion of the properties from husband to wife. Can this be done after purchase? There was also mention of CGT implications, but there was a suggestion that income could be split disproportionately but CGT could be kept at equal shares.
Can anyone help with this?
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