I'm doing some research at the moment about a house that I *may* buy.
The vendor paid £380K for it in December 2006 and it's now on the market for £385K. If I were to offer less than he paid for it, would that be considered insulting?
The vendor paid £380K for it in December 2006 and it's now on the market for £385K. If I were to offer less than he paid for it, would that be considered insulting?
Comment