I have not been doing contract work through my limited company for over two years, it has been practically dormant. I have income from other employment.
I have been advised to allocate different types of shares for me and my wife, shares type A and B, as a way to pay dividends to my wife only without me recieving any dividends or salary from the limited company. The advice I recieved was that doing so when I am not contracting and earning through the company should not be a problem. I was told that such approach would have been a problem if I was still doing contract work. I think my source of advice is quite reliable, but just in case, I need a second opinion and wonder if anyone on this forum is able to kindly provide it.
Additionally, if I vote dividends to my wife on 31 March 2012 to be paid as her 2011-12 financial year income, then vote further dividends on 30 October 2012 for her 2012-13 income, could it be disputed by the IR if all the voted funds were paid to her account between October - December 2012, i.e. her 2011-12 dividends were actually transferred to her in the following FY. (in different payments)? Could the IR treat all such dividends as her 2012-13 income?
I have been advised to allocate different types of shares for me and my wife, shares type A and B, as a way to pay dividends to my wife only without me recieving any dividends or salary from the limited company. The advice I recieved was that doing so when I am not contracting and earning through the company should not be a problem. I was told that such approach would have been a problem if I was still doing contract work. I think my source of advice is quite reliable, but just in case, I need a second opinion and wonder if anyone on this forum is able to kindly provide it.
Additionally, if I vote dividends to my wife on 31 March 2012 to be paid as her 2011-12 financial year income, then vote further dividends on 30 October 2012 for her 2012-13 income, could it be disputed by the IR if all the voted funds were paid to her account between October - December 2012, i.e. her 2011-12 dividends were actually transferred to her in the following FY. (in different payments)? Could the IR treat all such dividends as her 2012-13 income?
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