English Grammar

[Gibbon]

What is wrong with the following?

'A kind friend has invited my wife and I to dinner'

[Mich the Tester]

What is wrong with the following:

'A kind friend has invited my wife and I to dinner'

'I' should be 'me' seeing as it's the object of the verb 'to invite'.

[Gibbon]

'I' should be 'me' seeing as it's the object of the verb 'to invite'.

You could have held back a while, but yes correct. Funny how some people try to sound grand by using 'I'
incorrectly.

Most people wouldn't make the mistake in the plural though:

A kind friend has invited we to dinner.

[northernladuk]

What is wrong with the following?

'A kind friend has invited my wife and I to dinner'

Because it is convoluted and overly polite when 'Two's up on your missus tonight?' would have sufficed...

HTH....

[rhubarb]

Can you please explain why using I is incorrect ?

'I' should be 'me' seeing as it's the object of the verb 'to invite'.

Why shouldn't I be the object of the verb ?

Not doubting you, I just want to know so I can look less of a bell end when trying to sound clever.

[SueEllen]

Can you please explain why using I is incorrect ?

'I' should be 'me' seeing as it's the object of the verb 'to invite'.

Why shouldn't I be the object of the verb ?

Not doubting you, I just want to know so I can look less of a bell end when trying to sound clever.

Remove the words "my wife and" from the sentence and you get:

'A kind friend has invited I to dinner'

[original PM]

Remove the words "my wife and" from the sentence and you get:

'A kind friend has invited I to dinner'

some fellows from Jamiaca may disagree!

so when is it correct to use 'my wife and I' or should it always be 'my wife and me' or 'me and the missus'
?

again just trying to not look stupid!

[rhubarb]

Remove the words "my wife and" from the sentence and you get:

'A kind friend has invited I to dinner'

So thats a general rule ?

[Gibbon]

Can you please explain why using I is incorrect ?

'I' should be 'me' seeing as it's the object of the verb 'to invite'.

Why shouldn't I be the object of the verb ?

Not doubting you, I just want to know so I can look less of a bell end when trying to sound clever.

Because 'I' is the nominative singular form of the pronoun and the object of a verb needs to be the accusative form which is 'me'.

But you would say:

The wife and I invited a friend to dinner.

[cojak]

PS.

And using 'myself' instead of 'me' in that instance just makes you look like a pretentious ignorant knob.

HTH.