Originally posted by psychocandy
One more time: this isn't about the contract. That's fine. Misrepresentation at Law occurred when they deliberately misled in order to get me to sign their contract rather than another, leading to a direct financial loss, i.e. the amount of time I'm out of work, up to the full extend of the contract. Because if they had not misled, I would have signed the other contract and - we have to assume - would still have that income.
It's really not complicated. It's no different to clocking a car in principle. In practice, of course, it's hugely more complex and definitely not a slam-dunk case. But to dismiss it without even trying to understand the question is, well... a bit 'teenage troll'.
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