I'm testing a potential client's VPN for remote working - I'm not a networking expert but believe connecting to the VPN through my home internet connection means my PC is then able to access the web both through my ISP and indirectly through the client's ISP via their VPN.
Is it likely/possible the software on my PC would for some reason decide to use their network rather than my local broadband connection? And can I easily check/prevent this happening... it would be unprofessional to even accidentally do that especially since I do work for other clients.
Thanks for any guidance/advise.
Is it likely/possible the software on my PC would for some reason decide to use their network rather than my local broadband connection? And can I easily check/prevent this happening... it would be unprofessional to even accidentally do that especially since I do work for other clients.
Thanks for any guidance/advise.
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