Hi,
I am a 50% shareholder in my company with my wife who I am divorcing. I have been drawing dividends and paying them into a joint bank account, access to which she voluntarily surrendered when she moved out. Since she moved out I have been transferring her a fixed monthly amount to live on into her own private bank account. This figure pretty much matches the dividends issued in her name, and will exceed them by the time I need to draw another dividend.
Given that I have a full audit trail of business bank account payments into a joint account, and then transfers out again, is this not concrete proof that she has had these dividends, and there is no business perspective to address here at all?
She maintains this money is NOT the dividends, but separate child maintenance costs (which were only agreed purely informally pending divorce), but to me, it's clear the dividends are used as a mechanism to provide her that money. And IF they weren't deemed to be the same money, then surely whatever I've given her is still dividends and she can claim missed child maintenance (as her demand for all these dividends undermines the figures I would have otherwise have based child maintenance on IYSWIM) as a personal issue, utterly unrelated to the business.
if she says I owe her dividends, and I say I have... then what? Either way the money has left the business and fully documented to have done so, so again... it's not a business issue, right?
(company is already being closed, etc.)
Thanks
I am a 50% shareholder in my company with my wife who I am divorcing. I have been drawing dividends and paying them into a joint bank account, access to which she voluntarily surrendered when she moved out. Since she moved out I have been transferring her a fixed monthly amount to live on into her own private bank account. This figure pretty much matches the dividends issued in her name, and will exceed them by the time I need to draw another dividend.
Given that I have a full audit trail of business bank account payments into a joint account, and then transfers out again, is this not concrete proof that she has had these dividends, and there is no business perspective to address here at all?
She maintains this money is NOT the dividends, but separate child maintenance costs (which were only agreed purely informally pending divorce), but to me, it's clear the dividends are used as a mechanism to provide her that money. And IF they weren't deemed to be the same money, then surely whatever I've given her is still dividends and she can claim missed child maintenance (as her demand for all these dividends undermines the figures I would have otherwise have based child maintenance on IYSWIM) as a personal issue, utterly unrelated to the business.
if she says I owe her dividends, and I say I have... then what? Either way the money has left the business and fully documented to have done so, so again... it's not a business issue, right?
(company is already being closed, etc.)
Thanks
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