Hi There,
I have tried to locate a thread on this but couldn't find one - they pretty much all focus on spouse directors, shareholders, etc.
I am looking to allocate my Mother (different surname now, via gift) a 25% shareholding in my relatively new Ltd company (16 months old, minimum capital <£5k). Then, obviously, subsequently pay her 25% of all dividends paid from the company.
I need to ascertain whether, on the face of it, this is completely above board? I understand (via the settlements legislation) that if the monies were, somehow, to be redirected to myself it would be a different kettle of fish but they won't. Without wanting to sound naive, the account is in her name, her address, she has all the accesses (online, card, branch, etc). If this were to be proven, surely it has no tax benefit on my self as the money I'm, effectively, giving away would outweigh any additional taxes I'd face on paying the 25% to myself and potentially breaching higher rate taxes.
Thanks in Advance!!
I have tried to locate a thread on this but couldn't find one - they pretty much all focus on spouse directors, shareholders, etc.
I am looking to allocate my Mother (different surname now, via gift) a 25% shareholding in my relatively new Ltd company (16 months old, minimum capital <£5k). Then, obviously, subsequently pay her 25% of all dividends paid from the company.
I need to ascertain whether, on the face of it, this is completely above board? I understand (via the settlements legislation) that if the monies were, somehow, to be redirected to myself it would be a different kettle of fish but they won't. Without wanting to sound naive, the account is in her name, her address, she has all the accesses (online, card, branch, etc). If this were to be proven, surely it has no tax benefit on my self as the money I'm, effectively, giving away would outweigh any additional taxes I'd face on paying the 25% to myself and potentially breaching higher rate taxes.
Thanks in Advance!!
Comment